Texas Same Sex Marriage Ban: Are Married Men With Vasectomies Considered Divorced In Texas Because Sex With Them Won’t Produce a Child?
For a state that denies the responsibility for taking care of reproducing migrants, it’s funny that their argument in support of same sex marriage goes back to the premise that sex is for having children only. We should only have sex if we want kids? That ship has sailed. In fact, that ship is a ghost ship, the ship that never was. Women used crocodile dung, of all things, to prevent pregnancy. That is old school, as in ancient Egypt. Birth control is not new, neither is the idea of having sex without conceiving, so why does Texas feel the need to undo thousands of years of tradition, the birth control tradition, and determine that sex must lead to conception.
Heterosexual sex, is the only sex the state of Texas will recognize, because it causes pregnancy? So a couple that conceives a child together is then considered married in Texas because they participated in heterosexual sex that led to pregnancy? What about the couples who participate in heterosexual sex with the intent to conceive but don’t know that one or both is infertile? Are they still married?
This concept is startling in its breadth, in its arrogance, as if the last two to three thousand years of history have been covered with a blanket, one that we must be smothered with by the Texas legislature. How odd that sex is the only part of the discussion with marriage. Has no one read the posts about spreadsheets of excuses about sex? The state of Texas has not, apparently:
“Because same-sex relationships do not naturally produce children, recognizing same-sex marriage does not further these goals to the same extent that recognizing opposite-sex marriage does,” the brief said.
Of course recognizing same sex relationships won’t necessarily produce children as a form of recognizing marriage, but do we stop recognizing marriage after menopause, after a man gets a vasectomy? If a man gets a vasectomy, is he then considered divorced by the Texas legislature because sex with him won’t result in a child? Maybe once a couple hits 60 years of age, they are considered divorced because they can’t have biological children anymore. So marriage is only a baby-making machine, not a legal contract? Or the contract is only legal if the marriage is currently capable of producing children? Because most gay couples retain the ability to produce children, with outside assistance, so are couples utilizing IVF divorced in Texas, too, because they have problems with procreation?
Technically is marriage based only on the sex act? Are heterosexual couples having sex married only while having sex with the intent to conceive? Are they married while a woman is labor and giving birth but separated after the baby is born so that more heterosexual sex with the intent to conceive can be perpetrated by different partners?
If we are basing the concept of marriage in Texas on the ability, pure biological ability to conceive during a sex act, then gay couples should only be denied marriage if they are found to be infertile. Marriages of couples past the procreative ages should not be recognized, and gay couples that can biologically conceive should be recognized. Infertile couples in Texas should be considered divorced, as should any couple who doesn’t wish to have children. Sure sounds like a stable family arrangement for Texas, doesn’t it? Thanks, Texas, because your arguments make everything so much more clear… Misogyny much?